Submitted by UnrealTroyu on 05/21/2008 08:35 PM Flag This Paper
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Europeans during the Shakespearean era believed in witches, humans that wield magic for “evilâ€, the thought of people living in their village having this power scared them, which started a mass witch-hunt. Over 9 million women were hung, burned, and drowned on the accusation of them being perceived as witches (The Burning Times). Society did not agree with witchcraft since it went against the structure and foundation on which the society was built upon. It went against religious views, a major part of everyday life in throughout the fifteenth, sixteenth, and seventeeth century, thus making witch-hunting a noble act. In contrast to the play, witches were a symbol of great power, possessing the ability to “predict the futureâ€. A prophecy was read to Macbeth, which played out exactly. It is possible that the witches also possessed the ability to shape the future, as their words caused Macbeth to make actions that would’ve went against his own views if he did not know of the prophecy.
The question remains, did Macbeth truly choose his own path, or merely played the role that was provided to him by the witches which eventually led to his tragic demise? After hearing the prophecy of the witches, Macbeth was governed by desire and eventually justification for his actions, which would have been different if he did not hear the prophecy. His destiny could’ve possibly been altered if he lacked knowledge of upholding the titles; “thane of Glamis.. Thane of Cawdor.. And King hereafter†simultaneously.
Looking at the definition of a witch, Lady Macbeth could also be considered one since she performed a ritual to make herself less of a woman and more of a dominant male. She is the only other woman in the play that could be perceived as a witch. She calls upon spirits to “unsex†her and “thicken her bloodâ€, becoming more of a sturdy masculine figure. Since she is less of a woman, she is unable to bear children, therefore becoming impotent (Cotton...